Can you explain a bit further on the point that 
the chances of winning not being high regardless 
of having money or not? 

How can the auction discriminate against buyers? 
I thought the whole point of an auction is to (1) 
pay a little over the second highest bid, (2) 
have as fair a chance at owning the items which 
might be sold privately otherwise.

Although I wouldn't say I have "tons of money", I 
have a realistic budget. If so, why wouldn't I 
have the same chances as any other bidder?

TIA,
Chi